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Is the battle of Armageddon in Rev 19: 11-21 which is unique in the book of Revelation—or is it alluded to elsewhere? Of what importance is that question to how we read Revelation 16-20? Armageddon, as John tells us, is “in the Hebrew tongue” Har-Magedon (Rev 16:16). We learned in Part 1 of Revelation 19 (and in Dr. Heiser’s book, The Unseen Realm) that this term refers not to Megiddo, but to a final apocalyptic conflict for and at Zion/Jerusalem. In this episode we look at how John uses Ezekiel 38-39 (Gog / Magog conflict) in particular for his description of this end times battle; for events both prior to, and following, the second coming of Christ. How does this make sense?